PNLE I for Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice - RNpedia (2024)

Practice Mode– Questions and choices are randomly arranged, the answer is revealed instantly after each question, and there is no time limit for the exam.

Choose the letter of the correct answer. Good luck!

Start

Congratulations - you have completed PNLE I for Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice (PM).You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Return

Shaded items are complete.

12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
2122232425
2627282930
3132333435
3637383940
4142434445
4647484950
5152535455
5657585960
6162636465
6667686970
7172737475
7677787980
8182838485
8687888990
9192939495
96979899100
End

Return

Exam Mode– Questions and choices are randomly arranged, time limit of 1min per question, answers and grade will be revealed after finishing the exam.

Choose the letter of the correct answer. You got 1 hour and 40 minutes to finish the exam .Good luck!

Start

Congratulations - you have completed PNLE I for Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice (EM).You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Return

Shaded items are complete.

12345
678910
1112131415
1617181920
2122232425
2627282930
3132333435
3637383940
4142434445
4647484950
5152535455
5657585960
6162636465
6667686970
7172737475
7677787980
8182838485
8687888990
9192939495
96979899100
End

Return

Text Mode– Text version of the exam

1. The nurse In-charge in labor and delivery unit administered a dose of terbutaline to a client without checking the client’s pulse. The standard that would be used to determine if the nurse was negligent is:

  1. The physician’s orders.
  2. The action of a clinical nurse specialist who is recognized expert in the field.
  3. The statement in the drug literature about administration of terbutaline.
  4. The actions of a reasonably prudent nurse with similar education and experience.

2. Nurse Trish is caring for a female client with a history of GI bleeding, sickle cell disease, and a platelet count of 22,000/μl. The female client is dehydrated and receiving dextrose 5% in half-normal saline solution at 150 ml/hr. The client complains of severe bone pain and is scheduled to receive a dose of morphine sulfate. In administering the medication, Nurse Trish should avoid which route?

  1. I.V
  2. I.M
  3. Oral
  4. S.C

3. Dr. Garcia writes the following order for the client who has been recently admitted “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily.” To prevent a dosage error, how should the nurse document this order onto the medication administration record?

  1. “Digoxin .1250 mg P.O. once daily”
  2. “Digoxin 0.1250 mg P.O. once daily”
  3. “Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily”
  4. “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily”

4. A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?

  1. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion.
  2. Risk for injury related to edema.
  3. Excess fluid volume related to peripheral vascular disease.
  4. Impaired gas exchange related to increased blood flow.

5. Nurse Betty is assigned to the following clients. The client that the nurse would see first after endorsem*nt?

  1. A 34 year-old post operative appendectomy client of five hours who is complaining of pain.
  2. A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea.
  3. A 26 year-old client admitted for dehydration whose intravenous (IV) has infiltrated.
  4. A 63 year-old post operative’s abdominal hysterectomy client of three days whose incisional dressing is saturated withserosanguinous fluid.

6. Nurse Gail places a client in a four-point restraint following orders from the physician. The client care plan should include:

  1. Assess temperature frequently.
  2. Provide diversional activities.
  3. Check circulation every 15-30 minutes.
  4. Socialize with other patients once a shift.

7. A male client who has severe burns is receiving H2 receptor antagonist therapy. The nurse In-charge knows the purpose of this therapyis to:

  1. Prevent stress ulcer
  2. Block prostaglandin synthesis
  3. Facilitate protein synthesis.
  4. Enhance gas exchange

8. The doctor orders hourly urine output measurement for a postoperative male client. The nurse Trish records the following amounts of output for 2 consecutive hours: 8 a.m.: 50 ml; 9 a.m.: 60 ml. Based on these amounts, which action should the nurse take?

  1. Increase the I.V. fluid infusion rate
  2. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
  3. Notify the physician
  4. Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output

9. Tony, a basketball player twist his right ankle while playing on the court and seeks care for ankle pain and swelling. After the nurse applies ice to the ankle for 30 minutes, which statement by Tony suggests that ice application has been effective?

  1. “My ankle looks less swollen now”.
  2. “My ankle feels warm”.
  3. “My ankle appears redder now”.
  4. “I need something stronger for pain relief”

10.The physician prescribes a loop diuretic for a client. When administering this drug, the nurse anticipates that the client may develop which electrolyte imbalance?

  1. Hypernatremia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Hypokalemia
  4. Hypervolemia

11.She finds out that some managers have benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most likely?

  1. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.
  2. Gives economic and ego awards.
  3. Communicates downward to staffs.
  4. Allows decision making among subordinates.

12. Nurse Amy is aware that the following is true about functional nursing

  1. Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensive nursing services.
  2. One-to-one nurse patient ratio.
  3. Emphasize the use of group collaboration.
  4. Concentrates on tasks and activities.

13.Which type of medication order might read “Vitamin K 10 mg I.M. daily × 3 days?”

  1. Single order
  2. Standard written order
  3. Standing order
  4. Stat order

14.A female client with a fecal impaction frequently exhibits which clinical manifestation?

  1. Increased appetite
  2. Loss of urge to defecate
  3. Hard, brown, formed stools
  4. Liquid or semi-liquid stools

15.Nurse Linda prepares to perform an otoscopic examination on a female client. For proper visualization, the nurse should position the client’s ear by:

  1. Pulling the lobule down and back
  2. Pulling the helix up and forward
  3. Pulling the helix up and back
  4. Pulling the lobule down and forward

16. Which instruction should nurse Tom give to a male client who is having external radiation therapy:

  1. Protect the irritated skin from sunlight.
  2. Eat 3 to 4 hours before treatment.
  3. Wash the skin over regularly.
  4. Apply lotion or oil to the radiated area when it is red or sore.

17.In assisting a female client for immediate surgery, the nurse In-charge is aware that she should:

  1. Encourage the client to void following preoperative medication.
  2. Explore the client’s fears and anxieties about the surgery.
  3. Assist the client in removing dentures and nail polish.
  4. Encourage the client to drink water prior to surgery.

18. A male client is admitted and diagnosed with acute pancreatitis after a holiday celebration of excessive food and alcohol. Which assessment finding reflects this diagnosis?

  1. Blood pressure above normal range.
  2. Presence of crackles in both lung fields.
  3. Hyperactive bowel sounds
  4. Sudden onset of continuous epigastric and back pain.

19. Which dietary guidelines are important for nurse Oliver to implement in caring for the client with burns?

  1. Provide high-fiber, high-fat diet
  2. Provide high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
  3. Monitor intake to prevent weight gain.
  4. Provide ice chips or water intake.

20.Nurse Hazel will administer a unit of whole blood, which priority information should the nurse have about the client?

  1. Blood pressure and pulse rate.
  2. Height and weight.
  3. Calcium and potassium levels
  4. Hgb and Hct levels.

21. Nurse Michelle witnesses a female client sustain a fall and suspects that the leg may be broken. The nurse takes which priority action?

  1. Takes a set of vital signs.
  2. Call the radiology department for X-ray.
  3. Reassure the client that everything will be alright.
  4. Immobilize the leg before moving the client.

22.A male client is being transferred to the nursing unit for admission after receiving a radium implant for bladder cancer. The nurse in-charge would take which priority action in the care of this client?

  1. Place client on reverse isolation.
  2. Admit the client into a private room.
  3. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
  4. Encourage family and friends to visit.

23.A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with agranulocytosis. The nurse formulates which priority nursing diagnosis?

  1. Constipation
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Risk for infection
  4. Deficient knowledge

24.A male client is receiving total parenteral nutrition suddenly demonstrates signs and symptoms of an air embolism. What is the priority action by the nurse?

  1. Notify the physician.
  2. Place the client on the left side in the Trendelenburg position.
  3. Place the client in high-Fowlers position.
  4. Stop the total parenteral nutrition.

25.Nurse May attends an educational conference on leadership styles. The nurse is sitting with a nurse employed at a large trauma center who states that the leadership style at the trauma center is task-oriented and directive. The nurse determines that the leadership style used at the trauma center is:

  1. Autocratic.
  2. Laissez-faire.
  3. Democratic.
  4. Situational

26.The physician orders DS 500 cc with KCl 10 mEq/liter at 30 cc/hr. The nurse in-charge is going to hang a 500 cc bag. KCl is supplied 20 mEq/10 cc. How many cc’s of KCl will be added to the IV solution?

  1. .5 cc
  2. 5 cc
  3. 1.5 cc
  4. 2.5 cc

27.A child of 10 years old is to receive 400 cc of IV fluid in an 8 hour shift. The IV drip factor is 60. The IV rate that will deliver this amount is:

  1. 50 cc/ hour
  2. 55 cc/ hour
  3. 24 cc/ hour
  4. 66 cc/ hour

28.The nurse is aware that the most important nursing action when a client returns from surgery is:

  1. Assess the IV for type of fluid and rate of flow.
  2. Assess the client for presence of pain.
  3. Assess the Foley catheter for patency and urine output
  4. Assess the dressing for drainage.

29. Which of the following vital sign assessments that may indicate cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction?

  1. BP – 80/60, Pulse – 110 irregular
  2. BP – 90/50, Pulse – 50 regular
  3. BP – 130/80, Pulse – 100 regular
  4. BP – 180/100, Pulse – 90 irregular

30.Which is the most appropriate nursing action in obtaining a blood pressure measurement?

  1. Take the proper equipment, place the client in a comfortable position, and record the appropriate information in the client’s chart.
  2. Measure the client’s arm, if you are not sure of the size of cuff to use.
  3. Have the client recline or sit comfortably in a chair with the forearm at the level of the heart.
  4. Document the measurement, which extremity was used, and the position that the client was in during the measurement.

31.Asking the questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided by the nurse would be included during which step of the nursing process?

  1. Assessment
  2. Evaluation
  3. Implementation
  4. Planning and goals

32.Which of the following item is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs?

  1. Diagnostic test results
  2. Biographical date
  3. History of present illness
  4. Physical examination

33.In preventing the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a client who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be to use:

  1. Trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ileum to the midthigh.
  2. Pillows under the lower legs.
  3. Footboard
  4. Hip-abductor pillow

34.Which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue?

  1. Stage I
  2. Stage II
  3. Stage III
  4. Stage IV

35.When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed

  1. Second intention healing
  2. Primary intention healing
  3. Third intention healing
  4. First intention healing

36.An 80-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Nurse Oliver learns that the client lives alone and hasn’t been eating or drinking. When assessing him for dehydration, nurse Oliver would expect to find:

  1. Hypothermia
  2. Hypertension
  3. Distended neck veins
  4. Tachycardia

37.The physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I.M. every 4 hours as needed, to control a client’s postoperative pain. The package insert is “Meperidine, 100 mg/ml.” How many milliliters of meperidine should the
client receive?

  1. 0.75
  2. 0.6
  3. 0.5
  4. 0.25

38. A male client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin. Which statement correctly describes an insulin unit?

  1. It’s a common measurement in the metric system.
  2. It’s the basis for solids in the avoirdupois system.
  3. It’s the smallest measurement in the apothecary system.
  4. It’s a measure of effect, not a standard measure of weight or quantity.

39.Nurse Oliver measures a client’s temperature at 102° F. What is the equivalent Centigrade temperature?

  1. 40.1 °C
  2. 38.9 °C
  3. 48 °C
  4. 38 °C

40.The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client who has come to the physician’s office for his annual physical exam. One of the first physicalsigns of aging is:

  1. Accepting limitations while developing assets.
  2. Increasing loss of muscle tone.
  3. Failing eyesight, especially close vision.
  4. Having more frequent aches and pains.

41.The physician inserts a chest tube into a female client to treat a pneumothorax. The tube is connected to water-seal drainage. The nurse in-charge can prevent chest tube air leaks by:

  1. Checking and taping all connections.
  2. Checking patency of the chest tube.
  3. Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated.
  4. Keeping the chest drainage system below the level of the chest.

42.Nurse Trish must verify the client’s identity before administering medication. She is aware that the safest way to verify identity is to:

  1. Check the client’s identification band.
  2. Ask the client to state his name.
  3. State the client’s name out loud and wait a client to repeat it.
  4. Check the room number and the client’s name on the bed.

43.The physician orders dextrose 5 % in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops/ml. Nurse John should run the I.V. infusion at a rate of:

  1. 30 drops/minute
  2. 32 drops/minute
  3. 20 drops/minute
  4. 18 drops/minute

44.If a central venous catheter becomes disconnected accidentally, what should the nurse in-charge do immediately?

  1. Clamp the catheter
  2. Call another nurse
  3. Call the physician
  4. Apply a dry sterile dressing to the site.

45.A female client was recently admitted. She has fever, weight loss, and watery diarrhea is being admitted to the facility. While assessing the client, Nurse Hazel inspects the client’s abdomen and notice that it is slightly concave. Additional assessment should proceed in which order:

  1. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion.
  2. Percussion, palpation, and auscultation.
  3. Palpation, percussion, and auscultation.
  4. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation.

46. Nurse Betty is assessing tactile fremitus in a client with pneumonia. For this examination, nurse Betty should use the:

  1. Fingertips
  2. Finger pads
  3. Dorsal surface of the hand
  4. Ulnar surface of the hand

47. Which type of evaluation occurs continuously throughout the teaching and learning process?

  1. Summative
  2. Informative
  3. Formative
  4. Retrospective

48.A 45 year old client, has no family history of breast cancer or other risk factors for this disease. Nurse John should instruct her to havemammogram how often?

  1. Twice per year
  2. Once per year
  3. Every 2 years
  4. Once, to establish baseline

49.A male client has the following arterial blood gas values: pH 7.30; Pao2 89 mmHg; Paco2 50 mmHg; and HCO3 26mEq/L. Based on these values, Nurse Patricia should expect which condition?

  1. Respiratory acidosis
  2. Respiratory alkalosis
  3. Metabolic acidosis
  4. Metabolic alkalosis

50.Nurse Len refers a female client with terminal cancer to a local hospice. What is the goal of this referral?

  1. To help the client find appropriate treatment options.
  2. To provide support for the client and family in coping with terminal illness.
  3. To ensure that the client gets counseling regarding health care costs.
  4. To teach the client and family about cancer and its treatment.

51.When caring for a male client with a 3-cm stage I pressure ulcer on the coccyx, which of the following actions can the nurse instituteindependently?

  1. Massaging the area with an astringent every 2 hours.
  2. Applying an antibiotic cream to the area three times per day.
  3. Using normal saline solution to clean the ulcer and applying a protective dressing as necessary.
  4. Using a povidone-iodine wash on the ulceration three times per day.

52.Nurse Oliver must apply an elastic bandage to a client’s ankle and calf. He should apply the bandage beginning at the client’s:

  1. Knee
  2. Ankle
  3. Lower thigh
  4. Foot

53.A 10 year old child with type 1 diabetes develops diabetic ketoacidosis and receives a continuous insulin infusion. Which condition represents the greatest risk to this child?

  1. Hypernatremia
  2. Hypokalemia
  3. Hyperphosphatemia
  4. Hypercalcemia

54.Nurse Len is administering sublingual nitrglycerin (Nitrostat) to the newly admitted client. Immediately afterward, the client may experience:

  1. Throbbing headache or dizziness
  2. Nervousness or paresthesia.
  3. Drowsiness or blurred vision.
  4. Tinnitus or diplopia.

55.Nurse Michelle hears the alarm sound on the telemetry monitor. The nurse quickly looks at the monitor and notes that a client is in a ventricular tachycardia. The nurse rushes to the client’s room. Upon reaching the client’s bedside, the nurse would take which action first?

  1. Prepare for cardioversion
  2. Prepare to defibrillate the client
  3. Call a code
  4. Check the client’s level of consciousness

56.Nurse Hazel is preparing to ambulate a female client. The best and the safest position for the nurse in assisting the client is to stand:

  1. On the unaffected side of the client.
  2. On the affected side of the client.
  3. In front of the client.
  4. Behind the client.

57.Nurse Janah is monitoring the ongoing care given to the potential organ donor who has been diagnosed with brain death. The nurse determines that the standard of care had been maintained if which of the following data is observed?

  1. Urine output: 45 ml/hr
  2. Capillary refill: 5 seconds
  3. Serum pH: 7.32
  4. Blood pressure: 90/48 mmHg

58. Nurse Amy has an order to obtain a urinalysis from a male client with an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse avoids which of the following, which contaminate the specimen?

  1. Wiping the port with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe.
  2. Aspirating a sample from the port on the drainage bag.
  3. Clamping the tubing of the drainage bag.
  4. Obtaining the specimen from the urinary drainage bag.

59.Nurse Meredith is in the process of giving a client a bed bath. In the middle of the procedure, the unit secretary calls the nurse on the intercom to tell the nurse that there is an emergency phone call. The appropriate nursing action is to:

  1. Immediately walk out of the client’s room and answer the phone call.
  2. Cover the client, place the call light within reach, and answer the phone call.
  3. Finish the bed bath before answering the phone call.
  4. Leave the client’s door open so the client can be monitored and the nurse can answer the phone call.

60. Nurse Janah is collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing from a client who has a productive cough. Nurse Janah plans to implement which intervention to obtain the specimen?

  1. Ask the client to expectorate a small amount of sputum into the emesis basin.
  2. Ask the client to obtain the specimen after breakfast.
  3. Use a sterile plastic container for obtaining the specimen.
  4. Provide tissues for expectoration and obtaining the specimen.

61. Nurse Ron is observing a male client using a walker. The nurse determines that the client is using the walker correctly if the client:

  1. Puts all the four points of the walker flat on the floor, puts weight on the hand pieces, and then walks into it.
  2. Puts weight on the hand pieces, moves the walker forward, and then walks into it.
  3. Puts weight on the hand pieces, slides the walker forward, and then walks into it.
  4. Walks into the walker, puts weight on the hand pieces, and then puts all four points of the walker flat on the floor.

62.Nurse Amy has documented an entry regarding client care in the client’s medical record. When checking the entry, the nurse realizes that incorrect information was documented. How does the nurse correct this error?

  1. Erases the error and writes in the correct information.
  2. Uses correction fluid to cover up the incorrect information and writes in the correct information.
  3. Draws one line to cross out the incorrect information and then initials the change.
  4. Covers up the incorrect information completely using a black pen and writes in the correct information

63.Nurse Ron is assisting with transferring a client from the operating room table to a stretcher. To provide safety to the client, the nurse should:

  1. Moves the client rapidly from the table to the stretcher.
  2. Uncovers the client completely before transferring to the stretcher.
  3. Secures the client safety belts after transferring to the stretcher.
  4. Instructs the client to move self from the table to the stretcher.

64.Nurse Myrna is providing instructions to a nursing assistant assigned to give a bed bath to a client who is on contact precautions. Nurse Myrna instructs the nursing assistant to use which of the following protective items when giving bed bath?

  1. Gown and goggles
  2. Gown and gloves
  3. Gloves and shoe protectors
  4. Gloves and goggles

65. Nurse Oliver is caring for a client with impaired mobility that occurred as a result of a stroke. The client has right sided arm and leg weakness. The nurse would suggest that the client use which of the following assistive devices that would provide the best stability for ambulating?

  1. Crutches
  2. Single straight-legged cane
  3. Quad cane
  4. Walker

66.A male client with a right pleural effusion noted on a chest X-ray is being prepared for thoracentesis. The client experiences severe dizziness when sitting upright. To provide a safe environment, the nurse assists the client to which position for the procedure?

  1. Prone with head turned toward the side supported by a pillow.
  2. Sims’ position with the head of the bed flat.
  3. Right side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
  4. Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.

67.Nurse John develops methods for data gathering. Which of the following criteria of a good instrument refers to the ability of the instrument to yield the same results upon its repeated administration?

  1. Validity
  2. Specificity
  3. Sensitivity
  4. Reliability

68.Harry knows that he has to protect the rights of human research subjects. Which of the following actions of Harry ensures anonymity?

  1. Keep the identities of the subject secret
  2. Obtain informed consent
  3. Provide equal treatment to all the subjects of the study.
  4. Release findings only to the participants of the study

69.Patient’s refusal to divulge information is a limitation because it is beyond the control of Tifanny”. What type of research is appropriate for this study?

  1. Descriptive- correlational
  2. Experiment
  3. Quasi-experiment
  4. Historical

70.Nurse Ronald is aware that the best tool for data gathering is?

  1. Interview schedule
  2. Questionnaire
  3. Use of laboratory data
  4. Observation

71.Monica is aware that there are times when only manipulation of study variables is possible and the elements of control or randomization are not attendant. Which type of research is referred to this?

  1. Field study
  2. Quasi-experiment
  3. Solomon-Four group design
  4. Post-test only design

72.Cherry notes down ideas that were derived from the description of aninvestigation written by the person who conducted it. Which type ofreference source refers to this?

  1. Footnote
  2. Bibliography
  3. Primary source
  4. Endnotes

73.When Nurse Trish is providing care to his patient, she must remember thather duty is bound not to do doing any action that will cause the patientharm. This is the meaning of the bioethical principle:

  1. Non-maleficence
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Solidarity

74.When a nurse in-charge causes an injury to a female patient and the injurycaused becomes the proof of the negligent act, the presence of the injuryis said to exemplify the principle of:

  1. Force majeure
  2. Respondeat superior
  3. Res ipsa loquitor
  4. Holdover doctrine

75.Nurse Myrna is aware that the Board of Nursing has quasi-judicial power.An example of this power is:

  1. The Board can issue rules and regulations that will govern thepractice of nursing
  2. The Board can investigate violations of the nursing law and code ofethics
  3. The Board can visit a school applying for a permit in collaborationwith CHED
  4. The Board prepares the board examinations

76. When the license of nurse Krina is revoked, it means that she:

  1. Is no longer allowed to practice the profession for the rest of her life
  2. Will never have her/his license re-issued since it has been revoked
  3. May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on certainconditions stipulated in RA 9173
  4. Will remain unable to practice professional nursing

77.Ronald plans to conduct a research on the use of a new method of painassessment scale. Which of the following is the second step in theconceptualizing phase of the research process?

  1. Formulating the research hypothesis
  2. Review related literature
  3. Formulating and delimiting the research problem
  4. Design the theoretical and conceptual framework

78. The leader of the study knows that certain patients who are in aspecialized research setting tend to respond psychologically to theconditions of the study. This referred to as :

  1. Cause and effect
  2. Hawthorne effect
  3. Halo effect
  4. Horns effect

79.Mary finally decides to use judgment sampling on her research. Which ofthe following actions of is correct?

  1. Plans to include whoever is there during his study.
  2. Determines the different nationality of patients frequently admittedand decides to get representations samples from each.
  3. Assigns numbers for each of the patients, place these in a fishbowland draw 10 from it.
  4. Decides to get 20 samples from the admitted patients

80. The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is:

  1. Florence Nightingale
  2. Madeleine Leininger
  3. Albert Moore
  4. Sr. Callista Roy

81.Marion is aware that the sampling method that gives equal chance to allunits in the population to get picked is:

  1. Random
  2. Accidental
  3. Quota
  4. Judgment

82.John plans to use a Likert Scale to his study to determine the:

  1. Degree of agreement and disagreement
  2. Compliance to expected standards
  3. Level of satisfaction
  4. Degree of acceptance

83.Which of the following theory addresses the four modes of adaptation?

  1. Madeleine Leininger
  2. Sr. Callista Roy
  3. Florence Nightingale
  4. Jean Watson

84.Ms. Garcia is responsible to the number of personnel reporting to her. Thisprinciple refers to:

  1. Span of control
  2. Unity of command
  3. Downward communication
  4. Leader

85.Ensuring that there is an informed consent on the part of the patientbefore a surgery is done, illustrates the bioethical principle of:

  1. Beneficence
  2. Autonomy
  3. Veracity
  4. Non-maleficence

86.Nurse Reese is teaching a female client with peripheral vascular diseaseabout foot care; Nurse Reese should include which instruction?

  1. Avoid wearing cotton socks.
  2. Avoid using a nail clipper to cut toenails.
  3. Avoid wearing canvas shoes.
  4. Avoid using cornstarch on feet.

87.A client is admitted with multiple pressure ulcers. When developing theclient’s diet plan, the nurse should include:

  1. Fresh orange slices
  2. Steamed broccoli
  3. Ice cream
  4. Ground beef patties

88.The nurse prepares to administer a cleansing enema. What is the mostcommon client position used for this procedure?

  1. Lithotomy
  2. Supine
  3. Prone
  4. Sims’ left lateral

89.Nurse Marian is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which actionshould the nurse take first?

  1. Arrange for typing and cross matching of the client’s blood.
  2. Compare the client’s identification wristband with the tag on the unitof blood.
  3. Start an I.V. infusion of normal saline solution.
  4. Measure the client’s vital signs.

90.A 65 years old male client requests his medication at 9 p.m. instead of 10p.m. so that he can go to sleep earlier. Which type of nursing interventionis required?

  1. Independent
  2. Dependent
  3. Interdependent
  4. Intradependent

91.A female client is to be discharged from an acute care facility aftertreatment for right leg thrombophlebitis. The Nurse Betty notes that theclient’s leg is pain-free, without redness or edema. The nurse’s actionsreflect which step of the nursing process?

  1. Assessment
  2. Diagnosis
  3. Implementation
  4. Evaluation

92.Nursing care for a female client includes removing elastic stockings onceper day. The Nurse Betty is aware that the rationale for this intervention?

  1. To increase blood flow to the heart
  2. To observe the lower extremities
  3. To allow the leg muscles to stretch and relax
  4. To permit veins in the legs to fill with blood.

93.Which nursing intervention takes highest priority when caring for a newlyadmitted client who’s receiving a blood transfusion?

  1. Instructing the client to report any itching, swelling, or dyspnea.
  2. Informing the client that the transfusion usually take 1 ½ to 2 hours.
  3. Documenting blood administration in the client care record.
  4. Assessing the client’s vital signs when the transfusion ends.

94.A male client complains of abdominal discomfort and nausea whilereceiving tube feedings. Which intervention is most appropriate for thisproblem?

  1. Give the feedings at room temperature.
  2. Decrease the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula.
  3. Place the client in semi-Fowler’s position while feeding.
  4. Change the feeding container every 12 hours.

95.Nurse Patricia is reconstituting a powdered medication in a vial. Afteradding the solution to the powder, she nurse should:

  1. Do nothing.
  2. Invert the vial and let it stand for 3 to 5 minutes.
  3. Shake the vial vigorously.
  4. Roll the vial gently between the palms.

96.Which intervention should the nurse Trish use when administering oxygenby face mask to a female client?

  1. Secure the elastic band tightly around the client’s head.
  2. Assist the client to the semi-Fowler position if possible.
  3. Apply the face mask from the client’s chin up over the nose.
  4. Loosen the connectors between the oxygen equipment andhumidifier.

97.The maximum transfusion time for a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs)is:

  1. 6 hours
  2. 4 hours
  3. 3 hours
  4. 2 hours

98.Nurse Monique is monitoring the effectiveness of a client’s drug therapy.When should the nurse Monique obtain a blood sample to measure thetrough drug level?

  1. 1 hour before administering the next dose.
  2. Immediately before administering the next dose.
  3. Immediately after administering the next dose.
  4. 30 minutes after administering the next dose.

99.Nurse May is aware that the main advantage of using a floor stock systemis:

  1. The nurse can implement medication orders quickly.
  2. The nurse receives input from the pharmacist.
  3. The system minimizes transcription errors.
  4. The system reinforces accurate calculations.

100. Nurse Oliver is assessing a client’s abdomen. Which finding should thenurse report as abnormal?

  1. Dullness over the liver.
  2. Bowel sounds occurring every 10 seconds.
  3. Shifting dullness over the abdomen.
  4. Vascular sounds heard over the renal arteries.
Answers and Rationales
  1. Answer: (D) The actions of a reasonably prudent nurse with similareducation and experience.The standard of care is determined by the average degree ofskill, care, and diligence by nurses in similar circ*mstances.
  2. Answer: (B) I.M.With a platelet count of 22,000/μl, the clients tends to bleedeasily. Therefore, the nurse should avoid using the I.M. route because thearea is a highly vascular and can bleed readily when penetrated by aneedle. The bleeding can be difficult to stop.
  3. Answer: (C) “Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily”The nurse should always place a zero before a decimal pointso that no one misreads the figure, which could result in a dosage error.The nurse should never insert a zero at the end of a dosage that includesa decimal point because this could be misread, possibly leading to atenfold increase in the dosage.
  4. Answer: (A) Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venouscongestion.Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venouscongestion takes the highest priority because venous inflammation andclot formation impede blood flow in a client with deep vein thrombosis.
  5. Answer: (B) A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who iscomplaining of nausea.Nausea is a symptom of impending myocardial infarction (MI)and should be assessed immediately so that treatment can be institutedand further damage to the heart is avoided.
  6. Answer: (C) Check circulation every 15-30 minutes.Restraints encircle the limbs, which place the client at risk forcirculation being restricted to the distal areas of the extremities. Checkingthe client’s circulation every 15-30 minutes will allow the nurse to adjustthe restraints before injury from decreased blood flow occurs.
  7. Answer: (A) Prevent stress ulcer.Curling’s ulcer occurs as a generalized stress response in burnpatients. This results in a decreased production of mucus and increasedsecretion of gastric acid. The best treatment for this prophylactic use ofantacids and H2 receptor blockers.
  8. Answer: (D) Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output.Normal urine output for an adult is approximately 1 ml/minute(60 ml/hour). Therefore, this client’s output is normal. Beyond continuedevaluation, no nursing action is warranted.
  9. Answer: (A) “My ankle looks less swollen now”. Ice application decreases pain and swelling. Continued or increasedpain, redness, and increased warmth are signs of inflammation that shouldn’toccur after ice application
  10. Answer: (B) Hyperkalemia.A loop diuretic removes water and, along with it, sodium andpotassium. This may result in hypokalemia, hypovolemia, andhyponatremia.
  11. Answer:(A) Have condescending trust and confidence in theirsubordinates.Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show theirtrust and confidence to their followers.
  12. Answer: (A) Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensivenursing services.Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and noton the care of the patients.
  13. Answer: (B) Standard written order.This is a standard written order. Prescribers write a singleorder for medications given only once. A stat order is written formedications given immediately for an urgent client problem. A standingorder, also known as a protocol, establishes guidelines for treating aparticular disease or set of symptoms in special care areas such as thecoronary care unit. Facilities also may institute medication protocols thatspecifically designate drugs that a nurse may not give.
  14. Answer: (D) Liquid or semi-liquid stools.Passage of liquid or semi-liquid stools results from seepage ofunformed bowel contents around the impacted stool in the rectum. Clientswith fecal impaction don’t pass hard, brown, formed stools because thefeces can’t move past the impaction. These clients typically report the urgeto defecate (although they can’t pass stool) and a decreased appetite.
  15. Answer: (C) Pulling the helix up and back.To perform an otoscopic examination on an adult, the nursegrasps the helix of the ear and pulls it up and back to straighten the earcanal. For a child, the nurse grasps the helix and pulls it down tostraighten the ear canal. Pulling the lobule in any direction wouldn’tstraighten the ear canal for visualization.
  16. Answer: (A) Protect the irritated skin from sunlight.Irradiated skin is very sensitive and must be protected with clothing or sunblock. The priority approach is the avoidance of strong sunlight.
  17. Answer: (C) Assist the client in removing dentures and nail polish.Dentures, hairpins, and combs must be removed. Nail polish must be removed so that cyanosis can be easily monitored by observing the nail beds.
  18. Answer: (D) Sudden onset of continuous epigastric and back pain.The autodigestion of tissue by the pancreatic enzymes results in pain from inflammation, edema, and possible hemorrhage. Continuous, unrelieved epigastric or back pain reflects the inflammatory process in the pancreas.
  19. Answer: (B) Provide high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.A positive nitrogen balance is important for meeting metabolic needs, tissue repair, and resistance to infection. Caloric goals may be as high as 5000 calories per day.
  20. Answer: (A) Blood pressure and pulse rate.The baseline must be established to recognize the signs of an anaphylactic or hemolytic reaction to the transfusion.
  21. Answer: (D) Immobilize the leg before moving the client.If the nurse suspects a fracture, splinting the area before moving the client is imperative. The nurse should call for emergency help if the client is not hospitalized and call for a physician for the hospitalized client.
  22. Answer: (B) Admit the client into a private room.The client who has a radiation implant is placed in a private room and has a limited number of visitors. This reduces the exposure of others to the radiation.
  23. Answer: (C) Risk for infection.Agranulocytosis is characterized by a reduced number of leukocytes (leucopenia) and neutrophils (neutropenia) in the blood. The client is at high risk for infection because of the decreased body defenses against microorganisms. Deficient knowledge related to the nature of the disorder may be appropriate diagnosis but is not the priority.
  24. Answer: (B) Place the client on the left side in the Trendelenburg position.Lying on the left side may prevent air from flowing into the pulmonary veins. The Trendelenburg position increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases the amount of blood pulled into the vena cava during aspiration.
  25. Answer: (A) Autocratic.The autocratic style of leadership is a task-oriented and directive.
  26. Answer: (D) 2.5 cc.2.5 cc is to be added, because only a 500 cc bag of solution is being medicated instead of a 1 liter.
  27. Answer: (A) 50 cc/ hour.A rate of 50 cc/hr. The child is to receive 400 cc over a period of 8 hours = 50 cc/hr.
  28. Answer: (B) Assess the client for presence of pain.Assessing the client for pain is a very important measure. Postoperative pain is an indication of complication. The nurse should also assess the client for pain to provide for the client’s comfort.
  29. Answer: (A) BP – 80/60, Pulse – 110 irregular.The classic signs of cardiogenic shock are low blood pressure, rapid and weak irregular pulse, cold, clammy skin, decreased urinary output, and cerebral hypoxia.
  30. Answer: (A) Take the proper equipment, place the client in a comfortable position, and record the appropriate information in the client’s chart.It is a general or comprehensive statement about the correct procedure, and it includes the basic ideas which are found in the other options
  31. Answer: (B) Evaluation.Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes.
  32. Answer: (C) History of present illness.The history of present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.
  33. Answer: (A) Trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ileum to the mid-thigh.A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip.
  34. Answer: (C) Stage III.Clinically, a deep crater or without undermining of adjacent tissue is noted.
  35. Answer: (A) Second intention healing.When wounds dehisce, they will allowed to heal by secondary intention
  36. Answer: (D) Tachycardia.With an extracellular fluid or plasma volume deficit, compensatory mechanisms stimulate the heart, causing an increase in heart rate.
  37. Answer: (A) 0.75.To determine the number of milliliters the client should receive, the nurse uses the fraction method in the following equation.
    • 75 mg/X ml = 100 mg/1 ml
    • To solve for X, cross-multiply:
      • 75 mg x 1 ml = X ml x 100 mg
      • 75 = 100X
      • 75/100 = X
      • 0.75 ml (or ¾ ml) = X
  38. Answer: (D) It’s a measure of effect, not a standard measure of weight or quantity.An insulin unit is a measure of effect, not a standard measure of weight or quantity. Different drugs measured in units may have no relationship to one another in quality or quantity.
  39. Answer: (B) 38.9 °C.To convert Fahrenheit degreed to Centigrade, use this formula
    • °C = (°F – 32) ÷ 1.8
    • °C = (102 – 32) ÷ 1.8
    • °C = 70 ÷ 1.8
    • °C = 38.9
  40. Answer: (C) Failing eyesight, especially close vision.Failing eyesight, especially close vision, is one of the first signs of aging in middle life (ages 46 to 64). More frequent aches and pains begin in the early late years (ages 65 to 79). Increase in loss of muscle tone occurs in later years (age 80 and older).
  41. Answer: (A) Checking and taping all connections.Air leaks commonly occur if the system isn’t secure. Checking all connections and taping them will prevent air leaks. The chest drainage system is kept lower to promote drainage – not to prevent leaks.
  42. Answer: (A) Check the client’s identification band.Checking the client’s identification band is the safest way to verify a client’s identity because the band is assigned on admission and isn’t be removed at any time. (If it is removed, it must be replaced). Asking the client’s name or having the client repeated his name would be appropriate only for a client who’s alert, oriented, and able to understand what is being said, but isn’t the safe standard of practice. Names on bed aren’t always reliable
  43. Answer: (B) 32 drops/minute.Giving 1,000 ml over 8 hours is the same as giving 125 ml over 1 hour (60 minutes). Find the number of milliliters per minute as follows:
    • 125/60 minutes = X/1 minute
    • 60X = 125 = 2.1 ml/minute
    • To find the number of drops per minute:
      • 2.1 ml/X gtt = 1 ml/ 15 gtt
      • X = 32 gtt/minute, or 32 drops/minute
  44. Answer: (A) Clamp the catheter.If a central venous catheter becomes disconnected, the nurse should immediately apply a catheter clamp, if available. If a clamp isn’t available, the nurse can place a sterile syringe or catheter plug in the catheter hub. After cleaning the hub with alcohol or povidone-iodine solution, the nurse must replace the I.V. extension and restart the infusion.
  45. Answer: (D) Auscultation, percussion, and palpation.The correct order of assessment for examining the abdomen is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. The reason for this approach is that the less intrusive techniques should be performed before the more intrusive techniques. Percussion and palpation can alter natural findings during auscultation.
  46. Answer: (D) Ulnar surface of the hand.The nurse uses the ulnar surface, or ball, of the hand to asses tactile fremitus, thrills, and vocal vibrations through the chest wall. Thefingertips and finger pads best distinguish texture and shape. The dorsal surface best feels warmth.
  47. Answer: (C) Formative.Formative (or concurrent) evaluation occurs continuously throughout the teaching and learning process. One benefit is that the nurse can adjust teaching strategies as necessary to enhance learning. Summative, or retrospective, evaluation occurs at the conclusion of the teaching and learning session. Informative is not a type of evaluation.
  48. Answer: (B) Once per year.Yearly mammograms should begin at age 40 and continue foras long as the woman is in good health. If health risks, such as familyhistory, genetic tendency, or past breast cancer, exist, more frequentexaminations may be necessary.
  49. Answer: (A) Respiratory acidosis.The client has a below-normal (acidic) blood pH value and an above-normal partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (Paco2) value, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH value is above normal and in the Paco2 value is below normal. In metabolic acidosis, the pH and bicarbonate (Hco3) values are below normal. In metabolic alkalosis, the pH and Hco3 values are above normal.
  50. Answer: (B) To provide support for the client and family in coping with terminal illness.Hospices provide supportive care for terminally ill clients and their families. Hospice care doesn’t focus on counseling regarding health care costs. Most client referred to hospices have been treated for their disease without success and will receive only palliative care in the hospice.
  51. Answer: (C) Using normal saline solution to clean the ulcer and applying a protective dressing as necessary.Washing the area with normal saline solution and applying a protective dressing are within the nurse’s realm of interventions and will protect the area. Using a povidone-iodine wash and an antibiotic cream require a physician’s order. Massaging with an astringent can further damage the skin.
  52. Answer: (D) Foot.An elastic bandage should be applied form the distal area to the proximal area. This method promotes venous return. In this case, the nurse should begin applying the bandage at the client’s foot. Beginning at the ankle, lower thigh, or knee does not promote venous return.
  53. Answer: (B) Hypokalemia.Insulin administration causes glucose and potassium to move into the cells, causing hypokalemia.
  54. Answer: (A) Throbbing headache or dizziness.Headache and dizziness often occur when nitroglycerin is taken at the beginning of therapy. However, the client usually develops tolerance
  55. Answer: (D) Check the client’s level of consciousness.Determining unresponsiveness is the first step assessment action to take. When a client is in ventricular tachycardia, there is a significant decrease in cardiac output. However, checking the unresponsiveness ensures whether the client is affected by the decreased cardiac output.
  56. Answer: (B) On the affected side of the client.When walking with clients, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client can be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.
  57. Answer: (A) Urine output: 45 ml/hr.Adequate perfusion must be maintained to all vital organs in order for the client to remain visible as an organ donor. A urine output of 45 ml per hour indicates adequate renal perfusion. Low blood pressure and delayed capillary refill time are circulatory system indicators of inadequate perfusion. A serum pH of 7.32 is acidotic, which adversely affects all body tissues.
  58. Answer: (D ) Obtaining the specimen from the urinary drainage bag.A urine specimen is not taken from the urinary drainage bag. Urine undergoes chemical changes while sitting in the bag and does not necessarily reflect the current client status. In addition, it may become contaminated with bacteria from opening the system.
  59. Answer: (B) Cover the client, place the call light within reach, and answer the phone call.Because telephone call is an emergency, the nurse may need to answer it. The other appropriate action is to ask another nurse to accept the call. However, is not one of the options. To maintain privacy and safety, the nurse covers the client and places the call light within the client’s reach. Additionally, the client’s door should be closed or the room curtains pulled around the bathing area.
  60. Answer: (C) Use a sterile plastic container for obtaining the specimen.Sputum specimens for culture and sensitivity testing need to be obtained using sterile techniques because the test is done to determine the presence of organisms. If the procedure for obtaining the specimen is not sterile, then the specimen is not sterile, then the specimen would be contaminated and the results of the test would be invalid.
  61. Answer: (A) Puts all the four points of the walker flat on the floor, puts weight on the hand pieces, and then walks into it.When the client uses a walker, the nurse stands adjacent to the affected side. The client is instructed to put all four points of the walker 2 feet forward flat on the floor before putting weight on hand pieces. This will ensure client safety and prevent stress cracks in the walker. The client is then instructed to move the walker forward and walk into it.
  62. Answer: (C) Draws one line to cross out the incorrect information and then initials the change.To correct an error documented in a medical record, the nurse draws one line through the incorrect information and then initials the error. An error is never erased and correction fluid is never used in the medical record.
  63. Answer: (C) Secures the client safety belts after transferring to the stretcher.During the transfer of the client after the surgical procedure is complete, the nurse should avoid exposure of the client because of the risk for potential heat loss. Hurried movements and rapid changes in the position should be avoided because these predispose the client to hypotension. At the time of the transfer from the surgery table to the stretcher, the client is still affected by the effects of the anesthesia; therefore, the client should not move self. Safety belts can prevent the client from falling off the stretcher.
  64. Answer: (B) Gown and gloves.Contact precautions require the use of gloves and a gown if direct client contact is anticipated. Goggles are not necessary unless thenurse anticipates the splashes of blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions may occur. Shoe protectors are not necessary.
  65. Answer: (C) Quad cane.Crutches and a walker can be difficult to maneuver for a client with weakness on one side. A cane is better suited for client with weakness of the arm and leg on one side. However, the quad cane would provide the most stability because of the structure of the cane and because a quad cane has four legs.
  66. Answer: (D) Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.To facilitate removal of fluid from the chest wall, the client is positioned sitting at the edge of the bed leaning over the bedside table with the feet supported on a stool. If the client is unable to sit up, the client is positioned lying in bed on the unaffected side with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees.
  67. Answer: (D) ReliabilityReliability is consistency of the research instrument. It refers tothe repeatability of the instrument in extracting the same responses uponits repeated administration.
  68. Answer: (A) Keep the identities of the subject secret.Keeping the identities of the research subject secret will ensure anonymity because this will hinder providing link between the information given to whoever is its source.
  69. Answer: (A) Descriptive- correlational.Descriptive- correlational study is the most appropriate for this study because it studies the variables that could be the antecedents of the increased incidence of nosocomial infection.
  70. Answer: (C) Use of laboratory data.Incidence of nosocomial infection is best collected through the use of biophysiologic measures, particularly in vitro measurements, hence laboratory data is essential.
  71. Answer: (B) Quasi-experiment.Quasi-experiment is done when randomization and control of the variables are not possible.
  72. Answer: (C) Primary source.This refers to a primary source which is a direct account of the investigation done by the investigator. In contrast to this is a secondary source, which is written by someone other than the original researcher.
  73. Answer: (A) Non-maleficence.Non-maleficence means do not cause harm or do any action that will cause any harm to the patient/client. To do good is referred as beneficence.
  74. Answer: (C) Res ipsa loquitor.Res ipsa loquitor literally means the thing speaks for itself. This means in operational terms that the injury caused is the proof that there was a negligent act.
  75. Answer: (B) The Board can investigate violations of the nursing law and code of ethics.Quasi-judicial power means that the Board of Nursing has the authority to investigate violations of the nursing law and can issue summons, subpoena or subpoena duces tecum as needed.
  76. Answer: (C) May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on certain conditions stipulated in RA 9173.RA 9173 sec. 24 states that for equity and justice, a revoked license maybe re-issued provided that the following conditions are met: a)the cause for revocation of license has already been corrected or removed; and, b) at least four years has elapsed since the license has been revoked.
  77. Answer: (B) Review related literature.After formulating and delimiting the research problem, the researcher conducts a review of related literature to determine the extent of what has been done on the study by previous researchers.
  78. Answer: (B) Hawthorne effect.Hawthorne effect is based on the study of Elton Mayo and company about the effect of an intervention done to improve the working conditions of the workers on their productivity. It resulted to an increased productivity but not due to the intervention but due to the psychological effects of being observed. They performed differently because they were under observation.
  79. Answer: (B) Determines the different nationality of patients frequently admitted and decides to get representations samples from each.Judgment sampling involves including samples according to the knowledge of the investigator about the participants in the study.
  80. Answer: (B) Madeleine Leininger.Madeleine Leininger developed the theory on transcultural theory based on her observations on the behavior of selected people within a culture.
  81. Answer: (A) Random.Random sampling gives equal chance for all the elements in the population to be picked as part of the sample.
  82. Answer: (A) Degree of agreement and disagreement.Likert scale is a 5-point summated scale used to determine the degree of agreement or disagreement of the respondents to a statement in a study
  83. Answer: (B) Sr. Callista Roy.Sr. Callista Roy developed the Adaptation Model which involves the physiologic mode, self-concept mode, role function mode and dependence mode.
  84. Answer: (A) Span of control.Span of control refers to the number of workers who report directly to a manager.
  85. Answer: (B) Autonomy.Informed consent means that the patient fully understands about the surgery, including the risks involved and the alternative solutions. In giving consent it is done with full knowledge and is given freely. The action of allowing the patient to decide whether a surgery is to be done or not exemplifies the bioethical principle of autonomy.
  86. Answer: (C) Avoid wearing canvas shoes.The client should be instructed to avoid wearing canvas shoes. Canvas shoes cause the feet to perspire, which may, in turn, cause skinirritation and breakdown. Both cotton and cornstarch absorb perspiration. The client should be instructed to cut toenails straight across with nailclippers.
  87. Answer: (D) Ground beef patties.Meat is an excellent source of complete protein, which this client needs to repair the tissue breakdown caused by pressure ulcers.Oranges and broccoli supply vitamin C but not protein. Ice cream supplies only some incomplete protein, making it less helpful in tissue repair.
  88. Answer: (D) Sims’ left lateral.The Sims’ left lateral position is the most common position used to administer a cleansing enema because it allows gravity to aid the flow of fluid along the curve of the sigmoid colon. If the client can’t assume this position nor has poor sphincter control, the dorsal recumbent or right lateral position may be used. The supine and prone positions are inappropriate and uncomfortable for the client.
  89. Answer: (A) Arrange for typing and cross matching of the client’s blood.The nurse first arranges for typing and cross matching of the client’s blood to ensure compatibility with donor blood. The other options,although appropriate when preparing to administer a blood transfusion, come later.
  90. Answer: (A) Independent.Nursing interventions are classified as independent, interdependent, or dependent. Altering the drug schedule to coincide with the client’s daily routine represents an independent intervention, whereas consulting with the physician and pharmacist to change a client’s medication because of adverse reactions represents an interdependent intervention. Administering an already-prescribed drug on time is a dependent intervention. An intradependent nursing intervention doesn’t exist.
  91. Answer: (D) Evaluation.The nursing actions described constitute evaluation of the expected outcomes. The findings show that the expected outcomes have been achieved. Assessment consists of the client’s history, physical examination, and laboratory studies. Analysis consists of considering assessment information to derive the appropriate nursing diagnosis. Implementation is the phase of the nursing process where the nurse puts the plan of care into action.
  92. Answer: (B) To observe the lower extremities.Elastic stockings are used to promote venous return. The nurse needs to remove them once per day to observe the condition of the skin underneath the stockings. Applying the stockings increases blood flow to the heart. When the stockings are in place, the leg muscles can still stretch and relax, and the veins can fill with blood.
  93. Answer:(A) Instructing the client to report any itching, swelling, or dyspnea.Because administration of blood or blood products may cause serious adverse effects such as allergic reactions, the nurse must monitor the client for these effects. Signs and symptoms of life-threatening allergic reactions include itching, swelling, and dyspnea. Although the nurse should inform the client of the duration of the transfusion and should document its administration, these actions are less critical to the client’s immediate health. The nurse should assess vital signs at least hourly during the transfusion.
  94. Answer: (B) Decrease the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula.Complaints of abdominal discomfort and nausea are common in clients receiving tube feedings. Decreasing the rate of the feeding and the concentration of the formula should decrease the client’s discomfort. Feedings are normally given at room temperature to minimize abdominal cramping. To prevent aspiration during feeding, the head of the client’s bed should be elevated at least 30 degrees. Also, to prevent bacterial growth, feeding containers should be routinely changed every 8 to 12 hours.
  95. Answer: (D) Roll the vial gently between the palms.Rolling the vial gently between the palms produces heat, which helps dissolve the medication. Doing nothing or inverting the vial wouldn’t help dissolve the medication. Shaking the vial vigorously could cause the medication to break down, altering its action.
  96. Answer: (B) Assist the client to the semi-Fowler position if possible.By assisting the client to the semi-Fowler position, the nurse promotes easier chest expansion, breathing, and oxygen intake. The nurse should secure the elastic band so that the face mask fits comfortably and snugly rather than tightly, which could lead to irritation. The nurse should apply the face mask from the client’s nose down to the chin — not vice versa. The nurse should check the connectors between the oxygen equipment and humidifier to ensure that they’re airtight; loosened connectors can cause loss of oxygen.
  97. Answer: (B) 4 hours.A unit of packed RBCs may be given over a period of between 1 and 4 hours. It shouldn’t infuse for longer than 4 hours because the risk of contamination and sepsis increases after that time. Discard or return to the blood bank any blood not given within this time, according to facility policy.
  98. Answer: (B) Immediately before administering the next dose.Measuring the blood drug concentration helps determine whether the dosing has achieved the therapeutic goal. For measurement of the trough, or lowest, blood level of a drug, the nurse draws a blood sample immediately before administering the next dose. Depending on the drug’s duration of action and half-life, peak blood drug levels typically are drawn after administering the next dose.
  99. Answer: (A) The nurse can implement medication orders quickly.A floor stock system enables the nurse to implement medication orders quickly. It doesn’t allow for pharmacist input, nor does it minimize transcription errors or reinforce accurate calculations.
  100. Answer: (C) Shifting dullness over the abdomen.Shifting dullness over the abdomen indicates ascites, an abnormal finding. The other options are normal abdominal findings.
PNLE I for Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice - RNpedia (2024)

FAQs

How many questions are there in PNLE? ›

The Philippine Nurse Licensure Examination is a 500-item multiple choice exam to test basic nursing level competency which considers the objectives of the nursing curriculum, the broad areas of nursing and other related disciplines and competencies.

What is the meaning of PNLE? ›

PHILIPPINE NURSES LICENSURE EXAMINATION (PNLE)

Is the nursing board exam difficult Philippines? ›

The exams were difficult, we had the so- called "Battery Exam" which was not that hard iq test which will tell if you can continue with Nursing or not at the end of you second year. Around half of our initial student population was eliminated hence some either shifted their course or transferred to another school.

What is the passing rate in PNLE? ›

Appendix I: NLE Pass Rates, 1996 - 2022

Since 1996, an average of 42.58% would usually pass the exam.

What is the passing score of PNLE? ›

Nursing Licensure Exam (NLE) Passing Rate

For an examinee to become a registered nurse in the Philippines, they first must obtain a general average rating of at least 75%, with a rating of not below 60% in any of the five subjects.

Is the nursing exam hard? ›

NCLEX Pass Rates

The second-attempt pass rate for domestically-educated students taking the test was 45.56%. These results demonstrate that it is a pretty difficult test. The questions are designed to test your critical thinking, knowledge of the nursing process, and assessment skills.

How many years do you study for nursing? ›

BSN is a four-year program consisting of general education and professional courses. Professional courses, with emphasis on the nursing concepts with corresponding Related Learning Experiences (RLE), are threaded through from the first year through fourth year.

How many year does it take to become a nurse? ›

Depending on the specific nursing program that you enroll in, it could take anywhere from 16 months to four years to become a registered nurse. “I chose to earn my BSN, which takes four years,” says ChiChi Akanegbu, who completed her Bachelor of Science in Nursing at Regis College as a part of the Class of 2020.

How many nursing exams are there? ›

It has five tests and three subtests. Tests include Academic Aptitude (with the same 3 subsets as the RN version), Spelling, Math, Natural Sciences. There is no Reading Comprehension section, but instead includes a test on Judgment & Comprehension in Practical Nursing Situations.

Do nurses have board exam? ›

Students studying nursing still have to take the board exam after graduation to become fully pledged nurses. The Professional Regulation Commission along with the Professional Regulatory Board for Nursing conducts the Nursing Licensure Exam (NLE) twice a year.

What is the exam of nurse? ›

What is NCLEX? NCLEX is a test to determine if the candidate possesses the minimum level of knowledge necessary to perform safe and effective entry-level nursing care.

How many times can you take the nursing board exam in Philippines? ›

Though the vast majority of candidates pass the exam the first time, those who fail are permitted to retake it after 45 days from their original test date. Candidates may retest as many as 8 times in a year.

How many times can you take the board exam in Philippines? ›

Lifetime limit – candidates will be able to take the examination a maximum of six (6) times.

How much is the nurse salary in the Philippines? ›

The average monthly salary for Nurse jobs in the Philippines ranges from PHP 35,000 to PHP 40,000.

What is the number 1 nursing school in the Philippines? ›

1. University of Santo Tomas. The University of Santo Tomas is a Catholic university that is known for being Asia's oldest university and for being one of the first to establish a nursing college. The Commission on Higher Education granted it autonomous status in 2002, and it is home to several national treasures.

How many months should you study for the NCLEX? ›

How Long Should You Study for the NCLEX? To pass the NCLEX, students should plan to spend a minimum of 1-2 months studying.

What do you wear to nursing board exam? ›

For male examinees, clinical uniform with white shoes and white socks but without nameplate, school insignia/logo and pin; or school uniform. For female examinees, clinical uniform with white shoes and white stockings but without nameplate, school insignia/logo and pin; or school uniform.

Does nursing have math? ›

Nursing in the "real world" generally requires very basic math skills, but almost all programs require at least one college-level math class — usually algebra. Some nursing schools may require a basic statistics course as well, so if you know what schools you're applying to, be sure to check for this requirement.

How long does it take to become a nurse in the Philippines? ›

Usually, the courses are 3-4 years long and provide you with the much required and detailed knowledge about nursing skills, health promotion, disease prevention, risk reduction, patient care and much more that you need to know in order to be practically treating a patient. 3.

How much do nurses make? ›

Nursing Career2019 Mean Salary
Licensed Practical and Licensed Vocational Nurse (LPN/LVN)$48,500
Registered Nurse (RN)$77,460
Nurse Practitioners (NP)$111,840
Nurse Midwife (CNM)$108,810
3 more rows

Why is nursing so tough? ›

There's a lot to learn, the exams are challenging, the schedules are complicated, and the assignments keep piling up. All of these factors can make life difficult for you as a student. Nursing is a highly competitive field from the moment you begin the application process until you receive your degree.

Can you fail the NCLEX in 75 questions? ›

Can I Fail the NCLEX at 75 Questions? To pass the NCLEX RN or PN, test takers must correctly answer at least 75 questions (the minimum amount). Unfortunately, that means you can also fail the exam within those 75 questions or items.

Which nursing degree is best? ›

The MSN is the best degree for aspiring nurses and nurse professionals who want a career as a: Advanced Practice Nurse. Certified Nurse Midwife (CNM) Certified Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA)

Which course is best for nursing? ›

Undoubtedly, if a person wants to make a magnificent career in the sphere of the healthcare industry, then B.sc Nursing course is better than General Nursing and Midwifery (GNM). In the matter of career growth, higher studies, and salary the value of B.sc Nursing is more than General Nursing and Midwifery (GNM) course.

What is the highest qualification in nursing? ›

The highest level of nursing education is the doctoral level. Positions that require doctoral nursing degrees include certain types of advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs), as well as leadership positions such as chief nursing officer or director of nursing.

What qualifications do you need to be a nurse? ›

You'll typically need level 3 and maths and English qualification/s to start an RNDA. If you have a level 5 qualification as a nursing associate or assistant practitioner, your apprenticeship might be called a 'top up' RNDA or 'conversion' to registered nurse course.

How do I start my career in nursing? ›

Steps to Become a Registered Nurse
  1. Earn your Degree. In order to become a registered nurse, you will need to earn a degree from an accredited institution. ...
  2. Pass the NCLEX Exam. ...
  3. Obtain State Licensure. ...
  4. Seek Advanced Training (optional)
3 Feb 2021

What if I fail NCLEX? ›

If you didn't pass the exam, you'll receive a NCLEX Candidate Performance Report (CPR). The CPR is an individualized document that shows how a candidate performed in each of the test plan content areas. Candidates who fail the exam can use the CPR as a guide to prepare them to retake the exam.

How do I prepare for the nursing officer exam? ›

Copy down the concepts which are hard and lengthy to understand. Review the Syllabus:Before starting the preparation of exam, candidates must go through all the subjects and topics included in the syllabus. It should be noted that the topics must be prepared according to the syllabus prescribed by the authority.

What is the pass rate for NCLEX? ›

First Time NCLEX Pass Rates and Schools

According to the NCSBN, the national first time NCLEX-RN pass rate for US educated nurses in 2020 was 86.5% and the PN pass rate for the same period of time was 83%.

How many years after nursing school can I take the NCLEX? ›

She stated that there is no time limit on when you finished your nursing education to make you eligible (or ineligible) to take the NCLEX and you should go ahead and apply.

What courses need board exam? ›

Which courses require board exams after graduation?
...
Below is a full list of the professions that would need a board exam before the actual practice:
  • Accountancy.
  • Aeronautical Engineering.
  • Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering.
  • Agriculture.
  • Architecture.
  • Chemical Engineering.
  • Chemistry.
  • Civil Engineering.

What is best to do after BSc nursing? ›

M.Sc (Master of Science) In Nursing:

MSc is the most common and popular choice of course after Bsc. It is very obvious for Bsc students to go for a masters degree after graduation. M.Sc Nursing is a healthcare-related post-graduate degree programme. The programme lasts two years.

Is entrance exam necessary for nursing? ›

A: Yes. BSc Nursing is a medical professional programme and one has to appear for the entrance test to get admitted to the course. So, if you want to pursue BSc Nursing from a renowned Nursing Institute, taking an entrance exam at of national and state repute is mandatory.

What is done after BSc nursing? ›

After finishing BSc in Nursing you can opt for MSc in nursing which will improve their prospects in the job market. You can specialize in psychiatry, Medical-Surgical, Community Health and Paediatrics, Obstetrics and Gynaecology. The higher study programs after B.

How long is the NCLEX exam 2022? ›

You'll have up to five hours to complete the RN and PN exams, including the short tutorial and two optional breaks (the first two hours into testing, the second after 3.5 hours of testing). Take time to analyze each question carefully—once you submit an answer you cannot return to that question.

What subjects are included in PNLE? ›

PNLE Coverage
  • NURSING PRACTICE - 1: Community Health Nursing.
  • NURSING PRACTICE - 2: Care of Healthy/ At risk Mother and Child.
  • NURSING PRACTICE - 3: Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part A)
  • NURSING PRACTICE - 4: Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part B)

How many people fail the NCLEX? ›

The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) reports 13.43% of NCLEX-RN candidates fail the exam on their first attempt. The number of unsuccessful test-takers is low compared to the more than 86% who pass the exam on their first try.

What to do after passing the PLE? ›

Those who have applied for and successfully passed the licensure exam given by the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) should proceed with the initial registration. To verify that you're one of the successful examinees, check the results posted on the PRC website or newspapers of general circulation.

Can you retake board exams? ›

Yes ,you can repeat class 12th even after passing it because of some reason . You can repeat it if there is not more than 2 or 3 years of gap between 10 th and 12th . If there is more gap then you need to give 10th exam also and then 12th exam .

What happens if you fail the Npte twice? ›

Based on evidence we have from test scores since 2008, candidates who have failed the NPTE twice or more are unlikely to pass on any subsequent attempt. Our evidence suggests that those who do pass have participated in substantial remediation and physical therapy education.

What is the highest salary in nursing? ›

The 16 Highest Paid Nursing Jobs in 2022
  • Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist – $202,000.
  • Neonatal Nurse Practitioner – $131,000.
  • Cardiac Nurse Practitioner – $120,000.
  • Orthopedic Nurse Practitioner – $119,000.
  • Oncology Nurse Practitioner – $119,000.
  • General Nurse Practitioner – $118,000.
1 Sept 2022

How much is the salary of nurse in the Philippines 2022? ›

The average nurse salary in Philippines is ₱ 420,000 per year or ₱ 215 per hour. Entry-level positions start at ₱ 288,000 per year, while most experienced workers make up to ₱ 624,000 per year.

What job has the highest salary? ›

Highest Paying Occupations
OCCUPATION2021 MEDIAN PAY
General internal medicine physiciansThis wage is equal to or greater than $208,000 per year
Family medicine physiciansThis wage is equal to or greater than $208,000 per year
Emergency medicine physiciansThis wage is equal to or greater than $208,000 per year
17 more rows

What is the passing rate of nursing board exam 2021? ›

92.59 % Passing Rate In The November 2021 Nurse Licensure Examination.

How is nle score calculated? ›

If you get 84 correct answers in NP1 it could be translated as 84% NP1 rating. Then, you add all scores NP1-5 and divide it by 5. This will give you the final rating, which is 85.8% in this example. You need to score (final rating) at least 75% and score not below 70% in any subject to pass the NLE.

How many times can you take the nursing board exam in Philippines? ›

Though the vast majority of candidates pass the exam the first time, those who fail are permitted to retake it after 45 days from their original test date. Candidates may retest as many as 8 times in a year.

How can I pass Nclex exam? ›

How to Pass the NCLEX: 11 Study Tips to Pass the First Time
  1. Understand the NCLEX Format. ...
  2. Don't Self-Evaluate During the Test. ...
  3. Find Ways to Manage Your Test Stress. ...
  4. Know Your NLCEX Study Style. ...
  5. Make a Study Plan. ...
  6. Don't Draw from Past Clinical or Work Experiences. ...
  7. Hone Your Test-Taking Skills. ...
  8. Invest in Test Prep Resources.
9 Mar 2022

How hard is the nursing board exam? ›

NCLEX Pass Rates

The second-attempt pass rate for domestically-educated students taking the test was 45.56%. These results demonstrate that it is a pretty difficult test. The questions are designed to test your critical thinking, knowledge of the nursing process, and assessment skills.

What are the requirements for nursing board exam? ›

What are the requirements?
  • PSA/NSO Birth Certificate (original and photocopy).
  • For married female applicants, provide a copy of PSA/NSO Marriage Contract.
  • Transcript of Records with scanned photo and remarks “For board exam purposes”
14 Nov 2021

What is the number 1 nursing school in the Philippines? ›

1. University of Santo Tomas. The University of Santo Tomas is a Catholic university that is known for being Asia's oldest university and for being one of the first to establish a nursing college. The Commission on Higher Education granted it autonomous status in 2002, and it is home to several national treasures.

How many steps are in the NLE exam? ›

Clinical Skilled Examination is same as the Objective Structured Clinical Examination (OSCE), it consists of 20 stations, out of which 3 stations are compulsory. Candidate has to pass all the 3 compulsory stages.

What subjects are included in PNLE? ›

PNLE Coverage
  • NURSING PRACTICE - 1: Community Health Nursing.
  • NURSING PRACTICE - 2: Care of Healthy/ At risk Mother and Child.
  • NURSING PRACTICE - 3: Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part A)
  • NURSING PRACTICE - 4: Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part B)

How long does it take to become a nurse in the Philippines? ›

Usually, the courses are 3-4 years long and provide you with the much required and detailed knowledge about nursing skills, health promotion, disease prevention, risk reduction, patient care and much more that you need to know in order to be practically treating a patient. 3.

What should I wear to my PNLE test? ›

3. ATTIRE : Male Examinees - Clinical Uniform with white shoes and white socks but without nameplate, school insignia/logo and pin; or School Uniform. Female Examinees - Clinical Uniform with white shoes and white stockings but without nameplate, school insignia/logo and pin; or School Uniform.

What happens if you don't pass the NCLEX in 3 years? ›

If you have not passed the NCLEX by the three-year anniversary of your graduation, you will have to attend a nursing education program before you may take the exam again.

How much does the NCLEX exam cost? ›

How Much Does the NCLEX Cost? The base cost for taking either of the NCLEX exams is $200 if you're seeking a license in the U.S. You'll pay this fee to PearsonVue with a credit or debit card when you register. Depending on where you live, your state's board of nursing may require additional registration fees.

Can you fail NCLEX in 75 questions? ›

Can I Fail the NCLEX at 75 Questions? To pass the NCLEX RN or PN, test takers must correctly answer at least 75 questions (the minimum amount). Unfortunately, that means you can also fail the exam within those 75 questions or items.

How many hours study for NCLEX? ›

While students differ in the amount that they can comfortably achieve in one day, previous success stories show that between three to four hours of studying each day is ideal.

How many people fail the NCLEX? ›

The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) reports 13.43% of NCLEX-RN candidates fail the exam on their first attempt. The number of unsuccessful test-takers is low compared to the more than 86% who pass the exam on their first try.

Top Articles
Latest Posts
Article information

Author: Lidia Grady

Last Updated:

Views: 5524

Rating: 4.4 / 5 (65 voted)

Reviews: 88% of readers found this page helpful

Author information

Name: Lidia Grady

Birthday: 1992-01-22

Address: Suite 493 356 Dale Fall, New Wanda, RI 52485

Phone: +29914464387516

Job: Customer Engineer

Hobby: Cryptography, Writing, Dowsing, Stand-up comedy, Calligraphy, Web surfing, Ghost hunting

Introduction: My name is Lidia Grady, I am a thankful, fine, glamorous, lucky, lively, pleasant, shiny person who loves writing and wants to share my knowledge and understanding with you.